Passage up for discussion:
Matthew 26
39 He went a little farther and fell on His face, and prayed, saying, “O My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as You will.”
42 Again, a second time, He went away and prayed, saying, “O My Father, if this cup cannot pass away from Me unless[a] I drink it, Your will be done.”
I've heard differing opinions on the meaning of Jesus' prayer to God, so I want to see how y'all interpret it. My thought is that Jesus is asking the Father that He not have to go through the suffering of the death of the cross but that he is willing to submit in obedience if that is what the Father is commanding of him.
The greek word for "the cup" used here, I believe is 4221-poterion, defined as "a drinking-vessel; by extension, the contents thereof, i.e. A cupful (draught); figuratively, a lot or fate -- cup" and we see in the passages for reference (++) that Christ had accepted his 'fate' after praying that it not be so.
I think it is a great example for us today when we pray for something that God may 'say no' to. We should still accept the answer with the same attitude Christ accepted His with -- not one of bitterness or disappointment but with complete faith and obedience.
Passages for reference:
Mark 10
38 But Jesus said to them, “You do not know what you ask. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?”
++John 18
11 So Jesus said to Peter, “Put your sword into the sheath. Shall I not drink the cup which My Father has given Me?”
++Philippians 2
8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross
..My friend :) disagrees and says it means He is asking that his death come sooner than later (paraphrasing), but I don't see that.
Thoughts?
