During our class last night at Parkview, we came to the question of what is the "baptism for the dead" in 1 Cor. 15:29.
I stayed up last night reading in different versions, trying to figure this one out. Below is the reading followed by an explanation from a website garnered by Google...I like this explanation.
ESV:
29 Otherwise, what do people mean by being baptized on behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?
KJV:
"Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?"
NKJV:
"Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead?"
NASB
"Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?"
FROM: http://www.carm.org/questions/baptismfordead.htm
"Just north of Corinth was a city named Eleusis. This was the location of a pagan religion where baptism in the sea was practiced to guarantee a good afterlife. This religion was mention by Homer in Hymn to Demeter 478-79.2 The Corinthians were known to be heavily influenced by other customs. After all, they were in a large economic area where a great many different people frequented. It is probable that the Corinthians were being influenced by the religious practices found at Eleusis where baptism for the dead was practiced.
Paul used this example from the pagans in 1 Cor. 15:29, when he said, "...if the dead are not raised, then why are they baptized for the dead?" Paul did not say we.1 This is significant because the Christian church was not practicing baptism for the dead, but the pagans were.
Paul's point was simple. The resurrection is a reality. It is going to happen when Jesus returns. Even the pagans believe in the resurrection, otherwise, why would they baptize for the dead?"
(See also: http://www.sacred-texts.com/cla/pr/pr04.htm)
To me this seems like a reasonable explanation, given that just about every other religion in human history has some belief in an afterlife, but apparently the Corinthian brethren were unsure of a resurrection.
I'm open to anyone's explanation of this pretty difficult passage.
